Is The Bible Inerrant?

[Ohio]

Originally Posted by zeek

The Bible documents that not everyone accepted Jesus as the messiah. So, he must have been messiah in a way that was not unambiguously clear to everyone. If he had been a messiah in the way the jews expected him to be it would have been apparent to everyone. He would have overthrown the Romans and taken the throne of Israel. That didn't happen in any unambiguously apparent way. The inerrant bible records that such is the case.

So, I am not questioning if Jesus is the messiah or not. I am noting that the way in which he is the messiah is different than the way that was expected. Perhaps the Bible is inerrant in a way different than people expect it to be.

Jesus fulfilled literally hundreds of prophecies. Numerous and detailed descriptions in the O.T. were provided by God so that it was unambiguously clear to all of the house of Israel who their Messiah would be. The problem was never on His side or the scriptures' side. It was the unbelieving and proud Jewish leaders who rejected their Messiah! They said to Pilate, "we have no king but Caesar!"

The works that Jesus did made this absolutely, unambiguously apparent to the Jews. Lazarus was dead for days, stinking in the tomb, and then Jesus raised him from the dead. Everybody in Jerusalem knew about this. The Jews then plotted to kill Lazarus, rather than to believe in the Son of Man, their long-promised Messiah. It was never some simple misunderstanding that caused the Jewish leaders to misidentify the Messiah, and subsequently coerce Pilate to have him crucified. It was their evil heart of unbelief.

I expect the Bible is inerrant differently than the way you would like it to be.