The Church in Sardis prefigures the Protestant Reformation?

[Ohio]

Originally Posted by Evangelical

This is your typical style to attack the intentions of the poster rather than offer up your own alternatives. I cannot see you attempting to define the word heresy according to the Bible?

Typical style attack? I only schooled you in Linguistics 101.

[Evangelical]

Originally Posted by Ohio

Typical style attack? I only schooled you in Linguistics 101.

I cannot see anything in your post that could be perceived to be a schooling in Linguistics. You only stated that I used word etymology to define heresy and not the Bible. This is despite the fact that I was using the bible word for word and from the original Greek too. At least, I was using the Bible's etymology. Anyway the fact that various bible versions render the word as heresy proves I was not making a etymological argument. I was making a biblical argument based upon the meaning of the word in question from the original Greek. It should be clear that the word translated as heresies in the Bible has little to do with acceptance of certain Creeds or Confessions from Nicea circa 300 AD or even 1689. And why would they? Given that these Creeds and Confessions came years after the bible was written.