How many people have heard of LSM/Lee/Recovery

[Evangelical]

Originally Posted by A little brother

How could he then claim himself "as to the righteousness which is in the law, become blameless." (Phi 3:6) and "Neither against the law of the Jews nor against the temple nor against Caesar have I sinned in anything." (Acts 25:8)? How come he followed the ritual law in Acts 21:26?

His blamelessness in Phi 3:6 indicates a person who became morally righteous but did not have Christ.

That was before he knew better. Paul was on a transition between being a full Jew to half Jew eventually to someone who could rebuke Peter for being too Jewish, and finally creating Christianity as we know it today where we can eat pork and work on the Sabbath if we want to. That's the sort of freedom Christ died for.