How many people have heard of LSM/Lee/Recovery

[Evangelical]

Originally Posted by A little brother

Why isn't Micah 6:8 a direct quote? It is not direct or indirect. It's just the difference between active/passive voice and present/present perfect tense.

Easy. It's not a quote because it doesn't contain quotation marks.

I take the lack of scholarly support coming from you as a sign that you don't have any.

Originally Posted by A little brother

Brother, I have already lost count of how many times you contradict yourself in this discussion. Not long ago you agreed Micah reveals Christ. Now you say Micah does not reveal Christ. Aren't justice, mercy and humility parts of God's standard of perfection? Does Micah have to include all standards of God in one verse?

Then I think I said not everything Micah writes reveals Christ.

A verse which says God requires us to obey the Lord to be saved is definitely not revealing Christ which is about His righteousness saving us, not our own works or morals.

Originally Posted by A little brother

I asked about Paul because Jesus' words didn't seem enough for you. You asked for Paul's confirmation even though I quoted Jesus' own words that match Micah 6:8.

Let's see what Paul said about mercy:

Ephesians 2:4 But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us,

As Paul said, God is rich in mercy. Mercy is an attribute of God, not just human moral.

Why don't you quote the rest of that sentence in verse 25 :

made us alive with Christ even when we were dead in transgressions--it is by grace you have been saved.

Seems to me that the mercy Paul speaks of is the mercy of God towards us in Christ by saving us by grace alone.

This is not the same thing as Micah which says God requires us to be merciful and what Jesus said in Matt 23:23. This time period was when the Jews were still under the law (written and moral). But now we are under the grace.

I don't think many Christians pay much attention to Matt 23:23. When was the last time you ground pepper and salt into the collection plate? The type of righteousness achieved by obeying Matt 23:23 is but a shadow of the righteousness that comes by faith.

Originally Posted by A little brother

I almost feel good seeing this comment from you. I would rather embarrass myself in your eyes than before God.

During this discussion, you tried to divert the topic, you contradicted yourself, you pretended to be scholarly but there is no substance in your argument. You were relentlessly defending the footnote instead of God's truth. This is a perfect demonstration of the fruit of WL.

Yes, I am one of the "32m" who have heard of WL. I have heard of him and also witnessed his fruit.

I don't know what truth you think you are defending but seems to me you are defending the shadows rather than defending Christ.

This is evident when you warned me against lowering the importance of the shadows however the bible itself e.g. Hebrews 10:1 already lowers it by saying the law is "only a shadow".

I must say in all my time on here this has one of been the weakest arguments against the footnotes. I also note that not many are coming to your defense and presenting any convincing arguments from bible scholars or otherwise to support you.

Firstly you seem confused about the difference between old testament and new testament prophecy. It's very strange that having shown you the consistent pattern of language in old testament prophecy, that you would then try to link that back to local church "prophesying" meetings as if there is some kind of clear relationship.

You have not seemed to realize the difference between a direct quote from God "thus saith the Lord , or 'declares the Lord' and human opinion, or that prophecies can contain a mixture of divine revelation and human opinion (morals, ethics, scientific worldview at the time, etc).

Probably my biggest concern is a conflated argument on the piecemeal interpretation of a single footnote.