Major Errors of Witness Lee’s Teaching

[aron]

Originally Posted by Evangelical

So in Matthew 18:17 Jesus meant "tell it to the denomination that the sinning brother goes to" did He?

And why not? It doesn't say, "Tell it to the church unless it's denominated; then don't bother", does it? There have been high profile cases recently where a brother was exposed in wrong-doing to the churches, which churches had names. Having a name didn't stop the churches from following Matthew 18:17.

Oh, but it doesn't say, "denomination" but "church" is that it? Well then if reading "strict constructionist" thusly is your forte then please do it consistently, not just where it's convenient to the concepts at hand. How come, for example, Acts 19:41 doesn't say, "And with these words he dismissed the church"? What, the ekklesia in Acts 19:41 wasn't a church? Whatever happened to consistency? Why translate a word one way in one NT passage and differently elsewhere? Jesus said, "On this rock I will build MY ekklesia", meaning perhaps there existed ekklesia which were not of Jesus? Like in Acts 19:41, for example? Do tell.

Or, what about the ekklesia of the righteous in Psalm 1:5? Not a church, in your Recovery Version? Why not? Maybe, because Lee had just finished saying there's none righteous in dismissing this psalm? Okay, then why does the psalmist write, "in the midst of the ekklesia I will sing hymns of praise to Thee" in Psalm 22 and this gets translated as church when the epistle of Hebrews (2:12) cites it? Why is the word ekklesia in Psalm 1 not translated church if the same ekklesia of Psalm 22 is the church?

All I see are fallen concepts, and mixed sentiments, not of the Bible writer but rather of the Bible expositor. Lee, like Nee before him, was a man of convenience; words could mean whatever he needed them to mean at that moment - coherence and consistency were optional. Perceptions, needs and momentary circumstances were the shifting sands upon which the RecV was brought forth.