Virgin Birth questioned: the implications

[UntoHim]

Originally Posted by awareness

Take Luke 2:33, for example: And "Joseph and his mother" marvelled at those things which were spoken of him. (KJV)

The manuscripts betray's this verse, as the most authoritative mss has the verse reading, "And his father and his mother marveled.

So later scribes had such a problem with Joseph being called Jesus' father, by his mother, that they changed the verse.

Wow, Harold the learned theologian and renowned Greek scholar strikes again!

As usual awareness is all washed up with his "facts". This is vacation Bible School level Greek grammar and sentence structure, and if Harold would actually get his facts from actual biblical language scholars instead of atheists and ultra liberal so-called "scholars", he wouldn't end up posting such non-sense.

Interesting how Harold only consults "the most authoritative mss" when it appears to fit his twisted "theology". Well the most authoritative mss clearly state that Jesus Christ was the Son of the living God, creator of Heaven and Earth, was crucified and rose bodily from the dead, ascended to Heaven and is at the right hand of the Father. Does he believe this? Heck no - he calls this all fantasy and myths. On a real good day, he might say the disciples were merely hallucinating (a la Ehrman).

Without boring everybody with too much BASIC, FIRST SEMESTER, ELEMENTARY Greek grammar, Harold's claim is much ado about nothing at best, and really is just an embarrassing example of somebody who has an ax to grind and doesn't know what he's talking about. Whether the writer uses "his Father" or THE CLEAR ANTECEDENT stated at the beginning of the chapter in verse 4 ( And Joseph also went up from Galilee) is simply how writers of Koine Greek wrote. To imply some motivation is nonsense.