LSM's Etymological Errors - Nigel Tomes

[VoiceInWilderness]

Originally Posted by Igzy

On the other hand, though we can consider the Bible fully inspired, it's clear that it doesn't bother to be accurate in the way we usually define accuracy. This is shown by the variations in the reportage of the same incidents and dialogue in the different gospels. For example, Matthew reports Jesus using the phrase "kingdom of heaven," while Luke and Mark report the same incidences of speaking as using the phrase "kingdom of God."

Igzy, I agree with what you said previously, but not with this. I think Jesus used both terms in his speaking.

Originally Posted by Igzy

Lee took this variation as an excuse to create a new doctrine about the differences between the kingdom of heaven and the kingdom of God. Whether or not he was correct is not the point. The point is why major in these types of speculations when we have the plain word speaking clearly to us?

Brother Lee was right to investigate the difference in meaning between the 2 terms. The problem with Lee's studies is that once he reaches a conclusion, he seems to ignore opposing data, or at least did not present it to us.