Use of Jehovah in the RcV of the Old Testament

[aron]

Originally Posted by zeek

Thus, LSM acknowledges making a conscious decision to perpetuate an error. Not their first error, but it may be the first time I have ever seen them acknowledge an error. Perhaps they should sue themselves for slander.

Not only that, but it could be argued that "classic English literature", e.g. KJV &c, uses LORD for the divine tetragrammaton, i.e. the name of the Lord God.

But if the RcV editor decides what is classic literature, and what is not, who are we to argue? I mean, when God's oracle pronounces judgment, that's it: game over. "Thus sayeth the LORD"

(warning: the above included some humor)