Is The Bible Inerrant?

[ZNPaaneah]

Originally Posted by OBW

I would say that is a fair and accurate statement based on the claims of scripture itself.

Jesus is the Word. But the scripture is never declared as having the entire Word. Only imparting the truth and wisdom that God actually revealed.

It is, by nature, "word of God." But it does not claim to be all of it. It only claims to be breathed out by God. To be profitable for teaching with a goal to righteousness. To be worthy of our focus and even meditation.

Once again you make statements that boggle my mind. The word never claims to "be all of it" yet the book of Revelations does make it clear that you are not to add to it, which to my understanding is saying that it is complete. Paul said that his burden was to "complete the word of God". Earlier you said "you found no support" for the assertion that the word of God being inerrant is true down to the very word, which seems very similar to the sentiment Jesus said concerning "every jot and tittle". So whether or not you wish to interpret this differently it seems patently obvious that there is support in the Bible for this assertion.

But aside from John's word in Revelation and Paul's word about his completing ministry, how about

1Tim
3:16 Every scripture inspired of God [is] also profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness.
3:17 That the man of God may be complete, furnished completely unto every good work.

Surely the scripture is declared here to be a complete word. Now you may argue that this is in the context of making man complete. So if you want to limit the scope of "all wisdom" to God's plan with man that would be one way to interpret this. But how do you say "the scripture is never declared to be complete" when that is exactly what is declared.