Is The Bible Inerrant?

[Ohio]

Originally Posted by Igzy

We believe the Scripture is without error. The next step is to define "error." Clearly it cannot mean that every quote is recorded exactly as it was made, because the same incidents are quoted differently in the different Gospels.

That, perhaps, gives us some clue as how to regard the Scripture. You can created doctrines out of the differences, as with Lee's baffling kingdom of heaven/kingdom of God dichotomy. Or you can do what I prefer to do--take it as a sign to not quibble over words, but to step back and get the bigger picture.

I definitely agree with this.

It's like the old King James Version that added the words "and fasting," in italics to one verse in the gospels (Mark 9.29.) None of the manuscripts included it, and neither did any good translations. But that never stopped those diehard James'ers from spewing out condemnation on all those "corrupted" translations which "took fasting out of the Bible."

Another one I like is in I Cor 13.5 in the KJV, "love is not easily provoked." The KJV translators added the word "easily" to their translation, reportedly because King James had such a bad temper. This verse is for you buddy! There is no basis in the Greek for the modifier "easily."

By the way, after some recent forum happenings, I propose we make this "errant" verse translation our theme verse for the day. Now let's all pray-read this verse together.

Love is not easily provoked!