Does Proverbs 26:4 contradict verse 5?

[OBW]

Originally Posted by 77150

I think this approach has merit. However, you have to realize that the writer intentionally put these two proverbs directly next to each other. It is a logical construct very similar to mathematical formula. To then come in and say that the expression "according to his folly" in one part of the construct has a different meaning from its use in the second part of the construct is a violation of basic principles. It would be viewed as being deceptive.

Instead, if we say that the world is not black and white. Situations change, circumstances change, etc. In such a world you have to do a cost benefit analysis. In one verse the writer is giving you the cost, in the other he is giving you the benefit. If the benefit outweighs the cost, then rebuke a fool. If not, don't.

I would argue that the situation changing is just as altering to the formula as to how you read the phrase. It is quite common to hear phrases stated in different contexts and realize a different meaning from it. And to create the contexts back-to-back demonstrates that it takes more than a fool's view to deal with a fool. You can answer according to (in the manner of) his folly and join him. Or you can answer according to (with understanding of) his folly and correct him.

I am not disagreeing that what you say is not also true. But any deception would only be toward those who are not trained in wisdom. And the Proverbs are attempting to do some of that training. The one actually learning from it would stop and seek to discover the difference that makes both true while the simple would more likely just throw up their hands in despair and move on.