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Originally Posted by Sons to Glory!
Really Jo!? Satan's spirit is also called the anointing? Please show us this specifically in scripture (and 1st John 4:1 sure doesn't say that).
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You got me there, StG. However, John is the only author of the New Testament to refer to a Christian's "anointing" (Greek
Chrisma). Does this mean that Paul or Peter did not have knowledge of this so called anointing? Of course not, they simply used different terminology to describe what John was alluding to.
I'm sure we can agree that Jesus preformed miracles through the anointing he received from God. With this understanding we can conclude John is speaking of the Holy Spirit's work in a believer's life.
Now if Christ preformed miracles by God's anointing, what do you suppose the false converts, false prophets, and false Christ's speak their prophesies and perform their miracles by? Is it a far stretch to say from a false anointing?
The issue isn't that scripture lacks specific reference to a "false anointing", it's that people mistake demonic influence for God's true anointing.