Quote:
Originally Posted by Jo S
I admit, I've never heard this interpretation before. I'm curious, is this what the LC teach regarding the falling away?...
So the approach to exegetical biblical interpretation is the premise that scripture interprets scripture. Chances are certain narratives are repeated multiple times throughout the bible so they can be compared and a proper and consistent understanding can be derived from that.
So in terms of 2 Thessalonians 2, what I do first is look for the term in the original language and then look for other verses concerning an end times "falling away". Then I compare them to find it's meaning.
The Greek for "falling away" is "apostasia"
What I come up with is Matthew 24:10 where Jesus talks about the signs of his 2nd coming and a falling away.
"Apostasia" is the term found both in Matthew and Thessalonica.
The definition of apostasy is; a renunciation of the truth.
So the thought here is that one can't renounce something that they never knew was true in the first place. It implies that this is speaking of those that knew about the truth (Jesus Christ) yet ended up abandoning him in the end.
Another verse to support this thought is 1 Timothy 1:19...
On the other hand you have eisegetical biblical interpretation and it is a subjective interpretation where one's own worldview is imposed over the text. It ends up usually adding something to the text that is not there or taking away.
In the case of the interpretation you presented, the object of a "veil" is being added to the text. A veil isn't something that's explicitly mentioned in the verse but is added through presupposition that this verse is an analogy rather than a literal statement.
I can see how it's easy to do that because the terminology used there, "falling away" and "reveal", can easily paint such a picture. But the error comes from not looking at the original language to see the context of the English word used by the translators.
Now even with exegesis, you can go in circles all day but it's the safer method when interpreting scripture.
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Ok, so, to explain my situation, I would say I am just now learning how to read Gods'word. I am not assuming analogy was used here, but just trying to read the verse in context of the rest of the letter. I read the epistle to the Thessalonians several time this morning trying to see the subject of the letter and the whole picture of what Paul is trying to convey. I don't think myself above making MANY mistakes interpreting scripture. And I would love to study the word using the original authors intent through knowing original language and their definitions. How do I do this? Even the concept of having presuppositions which we bring with us, and misapply to the word is new to me. I know we are susceptible to doing it, but I don't think I am here. I was just trying to interpret the letter as a whole. And yes, I agree, the text does not explicitly say veil.
I didn't have any 'religious' education to get presuppositions from, really. I would call my primary family uninvolved with God. Then I received Christ a very young adult, then immediately into the LC. I cannot even stomach TV ministers, so I have no belief 'system' that I 'come from', if that makes any sense. And I choose now to reject EVERYTHING LC. If I can identify it!
So I now wonder this, apostasia is to renounce the truth.....if the antichrist knew the truth of Christ, but is working against Gods will in the world, for all men to come to the saving knowledge of Christ, couldn't the apostasy in Thess. be referring to the antichrists' own apostasy?