Quote:
Originally Posted by OBW
Not very astute. In this verse, God is saying that the result of the curse is that a woman will tend to desire for her man and that fact will make her tend to be subservient to keep things "right." I do not see that as a declaration of the right of man to rule over woman.
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Uh oh! That's not what my bible commentaries say! I'm a bible believing Christian who reads and studies the non-Lee/Nee bible commentaries and I'm not even using Lee/Nee at this point.
Sometimes I like to consider Jewish beliefs in this matter, particularly where it concerns translation of the old testament. Who can argue against a solid hebrew interpretation?
In doing so, I have found that the phrase rendered "rule over" in our English translations, means:
http://biblehub.com/hebrew/4910.htm
mashal: to rule, have dominion, reign
Original Word: מָשַׁל
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: mashal
Phonetic Spelling: (maw-shal')
Short Definition: rule
NAS Exhaustive Concordance
Word Origin
a prim. root
Definition
to rule, have dominion, reign
NASB Translation
dominion (1), gain control (1), govern (1), had charge (1), have authority (1), master (1), obtain dominion (1), really going to rule (1), rule (27), ruled (5), ruler (18), ruler's (2), rulers (6), rules (9), ruling (3), wielded (1).
Uh oh, someone's wrong again!
There is "..strong proof that everyman rules over his wife – no matter who she is"
see:
http://daattorah.blogspot.com.au/201...ed-by-her.html
But is it my fault that I believe what the Bible says and most commentaries say? Here's an interesting fact - the KJV Bible inserted the word "shall", so it says "shall rule over". This has turned the meaning of the passage into a decree or command that man must rule over his wife because she cannot be trusted. The author of the book should probably focus on a better bible translation, a KJV for women or something like that. I know! the Queen Jane Version. Very hard to re-write history and long-standing bible translations.