Quote:
Originally Posted by least
|
I've looked into a few Greek New Testaments online. Since I don't have an extensive knowledge of Greek I looked at the Greek version for all the verses where "church" or "churches" was the subject form of the word to make sure I was looking at the same grammatical form of ekklesia. Even across different Greek versions sometimes the singular form of ekklesia is used and sometimes the plural form of ekklesia is used in Acts 9:31.
Are we just stuck in not knowing for sure which is correct? It seems odd that W.Lee would use the singular translation here when his footnote explaining why does not actually hold water, and when he could just as easily have used the plural form when there seems to be some ground in the Greek to do so, especially when doing so would remove one of the big verses in the Bible that calls into question his OCOC teaching.