Quote:
Originally Posted by OBW
From one of Evangelical's posts above is the following from the commentator names Barnes:
What I think was missed here by EV was that Barnes did not say that Adam did not sin, nor that he was not deceived. It is true that the account shows the deception as starting with the woman. And Barnes indicates that this was because the woman was likely less resistance. An easier prey. But this is not stated as true. Just presumed. And even if it was true, does that mean that it is a universal truth that all women are easier prey for con men? Or was it simply true for this one woman (and surely some others but not necessarily all)?
Not stated.
|
Actually I stated that Adam sinned, and willfully, in my earlier post.
The plain and literal reading of 1 Timothy 2:14 is that Adam was not deceived, and the woman was.
But in an argument against a plain and literal interpretation of the scripture, I think most commentators believe that this does not mean that Adam was not deceived.
As to the meaning of "not deceived", the commentators have a range of opinions including:
Adam was not deceived (at all), and whose only sin was to be persuaded by his wife. Ellicott:
"He sinned, quite aware all the while of the magnitude of the sin he was voluntarily committing. Eve, on the other hand, was completely, thoroughly deceived"
Adam was not deceived first (but was deceived later by his wife, or by the serpent via his wife)
Barnes
"When it is said that "Adam was not deceived," it is not meant that when he partook actually of the fruit he was under no deception, but that he was not deceived by the serpent; he was not first deceived, or first in the transgression."
Adam was not deceived by the serpent (but was deceived by his wife's enticement and persuasion)
Barnes
" it is not meant that when he partook actually of the fruit he was under no deception, but that he was not deceived by the serpent;"
To whatever degree Adam was deceived or not, Paul makes a distinction between the genders on the basis of the deception. For this reason we cannot conclude that man and woman were equally deceived and for this reason either gender is qualified for church leadership.
Most commentators attribute the reason for this on the basis of the woman's weakness.
"There is a greater danger of self-deception in the weaker sex" ~ Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary
A plausible reason why woman is not allowed to lead is not because woman's sin was greater than Adam's, but because of her weakness.
OR, because the woman was responsible for being deceived herself and deceiving Adam. (Geneva Study Bible)
There are convincing arguments for this being a universal principle.
Ellicott quoting Prof Reynolds
If there be this distinction between the sexes, that distinction still furnishes the basis of an argument and a reason for the advice here rendered. The catastrophe of Eden is the beacon for all generations when the sexes repeat the folly of Eve and Adam, and exchange their distinctive position and functions.”