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RecV Psalm 32:11 footnote "In the beginning of this psalm David confessed his sins (vv. 1-5), but at the end he justified himself as righteous and upright in heart. In reality, apart from Christ no on is righteous and upright in heart (Rom 3:10; Jer. 17:9). David's writing here is of a person who tried to keep the law apart from Christ"
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No, David's writing here is not of a person who tried to keep the law apart from Christ. David's writing is of Christ Himself; as Paul says, David's writing is "the word of Christ", indwelling us richly. In the Psalms we see Jesus Christ portrayed before us; Jesus Christ as the one who was upright in heart. Jesus was fully justified by His Father, and the hope of the Christian is to be justified by faith in Him. Why doesn't this thought ever occur to WL?
The scriptures are ultimately not about David, or Moses, or someone else. They are fulfilled by Jesus, in whom the Father delighted. So when David wrote that God "rescued me, for He took delight in me" (Psa 18:19b) WL tried to mock his declarations, saying that David was a sinner. WL asked, how could God delight in a sinner?
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RecV Psalm 18:20 footnote "In vv. 20-28 David considered his righteousness, perfection, faithfulness, cleanness, and purity as the cause of God's saving him, and he considered God's salvation a recompense to him. This is a wrong concept"
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No, WL is the one with the wrong concept. Instead, consider the righteousness of Christ; consider in these very scriptures (vv. 20-28) the perfection of Christ: His faithfulness, cleanness, and purity as the cause of God's saving Him, and God's salvation as a recompense to Him (Christ).
If you look for King David in scriptures you will end up in frustration, ennui and despair. If you look away to Jesus you will live. I counsel the second choice, not the first. Why this second option never occurred to our supposed Bible expert WL is a mystery to me. The pattern was clearly established in the NT. The precedent was there before him.