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Originally Posted by Sons to Glory!
Seems simple enough, right? The fall came after Adam & Eve's creation, and brought with it things God didn't originally intend.
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No it’s really not. Im confused. If you say the fall came after A and E, and Genesis Chapter 1 had other men and women created before A and E, then doesnt that throw into question whether these other human beings were gay or not? And if these men and women before A and E were gay, then they were gay before the fall. So then it would be God’s intention for such diversity to occur.
(A and E were in Genesis Chapter 2). You are saying God had the waters (which you said was a primordial flood) to destroy all the men and women (in Chapter 1) because they were sinful. So is this Genesis 1 flood the same as Noah’s flood? Because I thought there was only one flood.