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Originally Posted by Trapped
The NT is equally mum about whether Jesus killed anyone or didn't kill anyone, stole anything or didn't steal, coveted or didn't covet, liked His meat cooked rare or well done......does anyone consider that "strangely mum" or issues that are "left open"? The NT writers probably could never have imagined people 2,000 years later reasonably positing that the Son of God who came to seek and to save those who are lost was a homosexual!
And if this discussion is couched in Jesus, and if you want to reasonably suggest what you've suggested, then His being a celibate homosexual, and an example to those claiming to be Christian, means His is the example to follow when it comes to what people who have homosexual attractions should do. To suggest Jesus was a celibate homosexual doesn't seem to be a desirable suggestion for homosexuals who want the Bible/Jesus to support their desire for a homosexual relationship.
What does suggesting that Jesus was a celibate homosexual (the very two things no one wants paired together) gain for anyone?
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My point is that I don't know, and I don't think you or anyone else does either, because I don't think the New Testament makes a factual statement about it one way or the other. That strikes me as odd and perhaps meaningful.
I've read other classical literature and usually the sexuality of the major subjects of the texts is characterized. We know quite a bit about the sexuality of Socrates , the Caesars and St. Augustine as examples. But, nothing about the sexuality of Jesus, the putative perfect man of the Christian religion.
So I'm asking the question: why? And it seems, as often the case, when I question the assumptions of people, they become defensive about it.