[UntoHim]

I didn't ask for a massive pneuma word study. I asked if every occurrence of the word pneuma was a reference to the Holy Spirit. A simple yes or no would have been sufficient. Admittedly, this first question was a rhetorical slam dunk.

The second question was the key: If not, why not. No need for a massive word study, or even any study at all. It's not a trick question. It's not a gotcha question. It is, however, a question that shoots straight at the heart of Witness Lee's contention that it is a direct reference to the Holy Spirit.

I fully understand, and even appreciate, the fact that you brothers agree with Lee's interpretation. (I did for over 20 years .) No problem! That doesn't make you a heretic. It doesn't even make you wrong in interpreting this verse to be a reference to the Holy Spirit. I am simply asking you to connect the logical and contextual dots. Yes, I am asking you to go beyond "the plain words of the scripture", just as I would ask of you in interpreting/understanding "be perfect, as your heavenly Father is perfect" (Matt 5:48) or "if your eye causes you to sin, tear it out and throw it away" (Matt 18:9)

So, does the logical and contextual dynamic lend itself to interpret/understand this particular occurrence to be a direct reference to the Holy Spirit? No orthodox, reputable teacher or scholar has ever interpreted this occurrence to be a direct reference to the Holy Spirit. Well, it didn't stop Witness Lee from interpreting it this way, and I guess it's not stopping you from interpreting it that way.

But my question still stands. It's still out there.
-