Quote:
Originally Posted by Steel
Perhaps in one instance David was speaking according to his fallen flesh, and in another instance he was speaking according to the way of God.
|
When I asked about the discontinuity in
RecV footnotes to the imprecatory Psalms, this was a response from an otherwise articulate writer - "Perhaps this is how it was." Well, perhaps it was how it was. But perhaps it wasn't. Perhaps the Bible is consistent and the interpreter is the one who's speaking one way at one time, and another way at a later time.
And to this observation I added a question: How could a Bible interpreter speak in front of thousands and clearly contradict himself, and nobody who lined up at the mike afterward said, ''Um, perhaps this isn't how it was"? And so I felt it must be a kind of group mind-control trick. This idea was insulting to poster Steel, and considered demeaning and disrespectful, and the conversation got side-tracked. But the question never really got answered. So it seems that indignation was a kind of convenient deflection - don't address objective content, but subjective attitude.
But the question remained. So I bring it forward again - How could a teacher, respected by so many, interpret the text one way, then later interpret it another way, without any obvious reason? Why the disparities in interpretation? And I'm really the first who noticed this, or did others also notice, and then lower their eyes and purse their lips?