[Sons to Glory!]

Originally Posted by aron

To go back to my point - the question is not, "What do you see as the meaning" today any more than what Calvin saw in the 16th century or Darby in the 19th. The question is, "What did this term mean in 1st-century Judea?" There are two reinforcing lines of inquiry. In one, we look at the word or phrase or concept. The actual idea conveyed - remember that Jesus was a rabbi, a teacher, as well as a prophet. In parables he was a rabbi.

I've gone into this at length with 'ekklesia' - Jesus didn't invent a term wholecloth in Matt. 16. See, e.g., the LXX of Psalm 1 and Psalm 22 (cf Heb 2:12).

So don't expect anyone to spoonfeed you; if you want answers, you'll have to dig. But that's where contemporary scholarship comes in.

No, I was asking what you, personally, thought was the meaning of outer darkness.