[Ohio]

The best manuscripts use the singular "church," but there are some that had the plural form, from which the KJV was sourced, and hence established much translation "momentum." Most readers view the difference as insignificant, since they readily perceive that either the individual or the collective has the same meaning -- after Saul / Paul's conversion, God's N.T. people "had peace ..." Praise God!

Only those like Nee and Lee who have become exceeding dogmatic about OCOC have contention here, as you noted above. Nee/Lee/LSM love to base their exclusive doctrine on John's seven epistles to 7 churches in Asia, yet they were established thru Paul's ministry. So why didn't Paul use the exact same OCOC notation to Rome, his two epistles to Corinth, or Ephesus, or Philippi, or Colosse? Obviously the Apostle Paul didn't even know the proper names of the churches he established thru the gospel!

Fact is, Paul's writings show us that he apparently never heard of this doctrine of OCOC. Romans 16.3, I Cor. 16.19, and Colossians 4.15 provide us with a few examples where Nee/Lee/LSM must shoehorn the scripture into their own teaching. It's not supposed to work that way, and a careful reading of these verses casts doubt upon their whole doctrine and system of error.