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Originally Posted by zeek
Thanks for "he didn't say the son of man would return He said the coming of the son of man. That one made me laugh out loud. Tell me the truth ZNP, do you not see that those are two different ways of saying the same thing?
Matthew 10:23 doesn't say anything about the coming of Jehovah or the breath of Jehovah. It's true that Jesus does not mention the clouds of heaven in Matthew 10:23. But he doesn't mention them in Matthew 13 41 either. There he says " the son of man will send out his angels and they will gather out of his kingdom all things that offend and those who practice lawlessness." Do you suppose he's talking about the Roman army there?
In Matthew 16:27 he says "for the son of man will come in the glory of his father with his angels and then he will reward each according to his works". No mention of clouds there either. In the following verse Jesus says "Assuredly I say to you there are some standing here who will not who shall not taste death till they see the son of man coming in his kingdom. Still no clouds.
So it's well established that Jesus can refer to the coming of the son of man to establish his kingdom without reference to clouds.
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You have not responded to any of my points. Saying that "it doesn't say coming in the clouds" is pointing out that you need more than "coming of the Son of Man" to tie this to the second coming. Obviously that is one possible theory, but tying Matt 10 to Luke 21 is far more compelling. Why are you avoiding that interpretation? Because surely you would agree that "armies surrounding Jerusalem" in Luke 21 could very well refer to the period when Jerusalem fell and the disciples were scattered.
In my view the fall of Jerusalem was a foretaste of the end of this age. It begins and ends with this. So without a doubt I think there are some interesting correlations with this the fall of Jerusalem after the crucifixion and then the end of the Age and Armageddon.
In Matt 24 Jesus said:
14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world for a testimony unto all the nations; and then shall the end come.. Now this to my understanding clearly refutes your interpretation. He tells them that they won't finish preaching in Israel before the coming of the Son of Man, and here he says that the gospel will be preached to the whole world and all the nations before the end comes. Same book, same author, both attributed to Jesus.
Your interpretation is based on a single verse and doesn't even look slightly further which is why I say it is myopic. I could go on, but no point, you haven't responded to anything I have said yet.