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Originally Posted by A little brother
Sorry, it doesn't quite make sense to me.
Wasn't 1 John addressing believers who have received salvation? What's the point of the anointing to teach someone already saved about matters only related to their salvation? If we haven't received salvation already, will the Holy Spirit be in us as the anointing?
If 2:27 is in the same context, don't you think it should appear before 2:26 where John wrote "These things I have written to you..."?
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The false teaching some believed was that Jesus did not come in the flesh (1 John 2:19). The necessary teaching for salvation is that Christ came in the flesh. Those who denied this about Christ also denied the Father ( 1 John 2:22). Some left because they were deceived that Jesus did not come in the flesh (1 John 2:19, 1 John 2:22-23) because they did not truly have the anointing. He means that he is confident that the rest who have not left won't be deceived and leave because they have the anointing which keeps them safe. The anointing gives them the right understanding of Jesus Christ as one who came in the flesh. It is in this sense that the anointing of the Spirit teaches them all necessary things about Christ and protects them from being deceived.
To put this in more practical terms - of those who have left the recovery, some might have denied that Jesus Christ came in the flesh, and others continue to believe that Jesus Christ came in the flesh. The difference between the two is that one has the anointing and the other doesn't.