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Old 05-26-2018, 03:05 AM   #1
Evangelical
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Join Date: Aug 2016
Posts: 3,965
Default Re: Christ or faith the Savior?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jo S View Post
At that point I wasn't making a scriptural argument. Exegesis didn't apply. I shouldn't even have to say that.

I think it's at the point, Evangelical, where you are just arguing for the sake of arguing.

You said:

What you do is use one verse and then proceed your own interpretation without having another verse to support that view.

This is a false claim because in my first post I posted 3 verses (more than 1) to support the view that belief is not enough:

The problem with a John 3:16-only view of salvation is that even the devils believe in Christ (James 2:19). Even a devil could agree with the first page of a gospel tract where it says "believe in Christ and you will be saved". A devil could even claim to know Christ (Acts 19:15).

I also used Psalm 41:9 to support Judas being a friend of Christ. This is another example of one verse supporting another.

You post only two verses and then claim you are doing exegesis.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Jo S View Post
The problem is if you use Paul's language in Philippians to justify a continual mystical experience of Christ in the present tense then Paul would have to continually lose all things over and over again. He says, "I consider everything a loss". What does Paul mean by the term "everything"? His old life. He cannot lose his old life over again in order to gain Christ on a daily basis as you interpret gaining, can he?
Paul lived in a constant state of that loss and that is what is the present tense.
"I consider everything a loss" - that is present tense, not past.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Jo S View Post
That's not a valid example because many have testified of experiences after being pronounced legally dead. That's evidence that faculties are available even in situations where no measurable brain activity is occurring.
Salvation after death is not possible.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jo S View Post
In no way does Paul explicitly state here or anywhere else that a verbal confession is a requirement for salvation.

You are making that assumption.
Time for some multi-verse "exegesis":

Psalm 116:13 I will take the cup of salvation, and call upon the name of the LORD.

Acts 2:21 And everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.'

Romans 10:13 for, "Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved."

Jesus said it was a requirement:

Matt 10:32 Therefore everyone who will confess in Me before men, I also will confess in him before My Father in the heavens.

Romans 10:9
That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.

Romans 10:10
For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

There are too many verses to deny that confession is important for salvation.

It is a Hebrew parallelism which means that the faith of the heart is united with the confession of the mouth, resulting in righteousness and salvation.

“With the faith of the heart is united the confession of the mouth to the result that one obtains righteousness and salvation.”

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jo S View Post
In Acts 9, it was an objective experience. He physically saw a light and was blinded. He also heard a voice as did his companions. It was certainly not an inner experience brought on by a mystical practice.
So he had no subjective inner experience at all is that what you are saying?
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