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Originally Posted by YP0534
Piffle. No one can seriously contend that Hebrews 8:8-12 (and the prophesy cited) in context is an exclusive deal with Israel and Judah, and that reading is just completely at odds with the totality of the revelation of the truth. Christ has become our high priest according to the order of Melchizedek.
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You do realize that you are quoting the letter "To the HEBREWS," no?
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Regardless, in Christ there is neither Jew nor Greek. The blessing of Abraham has come to the nations in Christ, and, in fact, in Christ, we are all Abraham's seed.
You might be right about the cracker, though... 
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That does not mean that the new testaments was not specifically promised to the house of Israel and Judah:
Heb 9:15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.
Well, let me ask you, are these words meaningless to you?:
Heb 8:8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant **with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah**:
Suppose I found a nice contract I liked, and it said "with the house of Smith and Jones"... could I just ignore that and add my name?
Ga 3:15 Brethren, I speak after the manner of men; Though it be but a man‘s covenant, yet if it be confirmed, no man disannulleth, or addeth thereto.
So what view of scripture allows you to ignore this specification of the parties with whom the covenant is made?