[Evangelical]

"Innate male bias", using the dictionary definition of "innate" as "inborn, natural", must simply mean "the male bias all men were born with".

What is this "male bias all men were born with"?

I don't think that anyone is born with bias that Satan can easily use to accomplish some sinister aim. Male babies do not have male bias towards female babies etc. It is just the fact that men are men and women are women. A man has innate male bias, a woman has innate female bias, a cat has innate cat bias.

Based upon what happened in the Garden of Eden, I don't think that innate male bias is something that Satan can easily use. At least, there is more biblical evidence that it is easier to use female bias than male bias:

Jane/Bushnell's argument goes:

There were no female members on early bible translation committees. So it was easy for Satan to use innate male bias

One could just as easily say, based upon what actually happened in the Garden of Eden:
It was hard for Satan to use innate male bias, given the fact that it was the woman deceived in Eden, not the man, and Satan never tried to approach the man directly.

This is the sort of argument Paul invokes in 1 Timothy 2:14, when he says that Adam was not deceived, but woman was deceived. (and yes I know Adam was deceived, but Paul's meaning here is that woman was the weaker creation and so was first to be blamed).

I think that Bushnell inserts food for thought speculations about what happened in the Garden, because she knew that the facts as plainly written speak for themselves - it is easier for Satan to use "innate female bias" than "innate male bias". In other words, recognizing that "innate male bias" is a nothing term that just means the fact a person is male, we could say that it is easier for Satan to use a female than a male if he wanted to accomplish some sinister purpose. Or why not just say that Satan can use either male or female bias, and the gender of the translation committee is irrelevant?