[Evangelical]

Throughout history, there have been two translations of the word teshuqah. One is "desire", one is "turning". Jane's book discusses that.

The "turning" version is found in the Greek Septuagint and permeates the churches that prefer the Greek Septuagint. The Greek Septuagint was the first translation of the Hebrew into another language.

Because the Greek Septuagint translates teshuqah as "turning", it would be hard for anyone to claim that male bias was behind the translation from Hebrew into the Greek Septuagint , right?

Jane is probably correct that "turning" is the proper translation. The problem is that despite the Eastern churches using the "correct" translation of teshuqah, to mean turning, does it mean men and women enjoy equality in the Eastern Orthodox church? I don't think there is much correlation between the "correct" translation of that verse and how women are treated. Eastern Orthodox have treated women the same as Catholics.

Simply translated as "turning", does not necessarily support Jane's narrative either.

In Greek, the word is apostrophe and means turning.

The same word is used in Genesis 16:9 regarding Hagar and Sarah:

Genesis 16:9 And the angel of the LORD said unto her, Return to thy mistress, and submit thyself under her hands.

That is a passage about turning and submission.

Another place where teshuqah is used is:
Song of Solomon 7:10 I belong to my beloved, and his desire is for me.

It can mean woman desiring or turning towards man or man desiring or turning towards woman.