Quote:
Originally Posted by Drake
Igzy) "Explicitly?" If the Lord wanted to be "explicit" he would have explicitly commanded one church per city. If the oneness of the believers in a city on the ground of locality was so important to the Lord then why didn't he just say there should be one church in each city in plain English/Aramaic/Greek? "
Igzy,
In the New Testament age it is the Spirit that speaks to the churches.
In Revelation 2 & 3 it is the Spirit speaking to the churches. Which churches? The seven churches that are identified in each city. Not thousands of churches in seven cities. Not the universal church but rather seven churches in seven cities. "The" church in a mentioned city is a definite article. It does not get any more explicit than that in any language.
Drake
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Didn't the Spirit speak explicitly thru Paul? Why then no such explicit speaking in his many epistles, both public and private?
And looking from another point of view, why use such matters here to condemn the entire body of Christ, when LSM and the LC's should be doubly condemned for all of their divisive practices. You find splinters when timbers stick out of your eyesockets.