Quote:
Originally Posted by Evangelical
For it is improper for a woman to speak in an assembly, no matter what she says, even if she says admirable things, or even saintly things, that is of little consequence, since they come from the mouth of a woman. –Origen (d. 258): Fragments on First Corinthians, 74
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How then do you reckon this with Paul's dictum that there is no male nor female, slave nor free, greek nor jew? The second and third distinctions have been truly effaced, and equalized, but not the first? Why is that? And, what did Origen say about slavery? Would he say the same things today?