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Old 04-07-2016, 08:51 PM   #73
testallthings
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Join Date: Dec 2015
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Default Re: Translation & More

COINCIDENCE??


In a previous post I mentioned about the use of many works not duly quoted in the Recovery Version of the Bible. In rereading Dr. Tomes Nigel work, LSM’s PLAGIARISM—
An Initial Inquiry1, and finding examples about Vincent, Scofield, Vine, etc., but not about Darby, and having noticed long time ago, while reading Darby's translation, some of his notes (coincidence??) in the RcV, and having a little time to play hide and seek, here we go.

Heb. 8:11 And they shall by no means each teach his fellow citizen and each his brother, saying, 1Know the Lord; for all will 1know Me from the little one to the great one among them.

1*In this verse two Greek words are used for know:*the first is ginosko,*which signifies the outward, objective knowledge; the second is oida,*which refers to the inward, subjective consciousness. In John 8:55 the Lord Jesus told the Pharisees that they did not know ( ginosko)*God the Father (even in the outward, objective knowledge), and that He did know (oida)*the Father (in the inward, subjective consciousness). Both words are used in 1 John 2:29. (W. Lee, The New Testament Recovery Version, revised edition 1991, Anaheim: Living Stream Ministry)


Two Greek words are used for 'to know' in the New Testament – ginosko and oida. The former signifies objective knowledge, what a man has learned or acquired. The English expression 'being acquainted with' perhaps conveys the meaning. Oida conveys the thought of what is inward consciousness in the mind, intuitive knowledge not immediately derived from what is external. The difference between the two words is illustrated in John 8:55, 'ye know (ginosko) him not; but I know (oida) him;' in John 13:7, 'What I do thou doest not know (oida) now, but thou shalt know (ginosko) hereafter;' and in Heb. 8:11, ' they shall not teach...saying, Know (ginosko) the Lord; because all shall know (oida) me.' the word oida is used of Christ as knowing the Father, and as knowing the hypocrisy of the Scribes and Pharises, of Paul's knowledge of a 'man in Christ,' and of the Christian's knowledge that he has eternal life. 'I know whom I have believed,' 2 Tim 1:12 – I have the inward conscious knowledge of who the person is: see also 1 cor. 16:15; 2 Tim. 3:14 and 15 – all of these refer to inward conscious knowledge. The difference between the significance of the two words is often slight; and objective knowledge may pass into conscious knowledge, but not vice versa. The Greek for conscience is derived from oida: see ch. 4.:4, 'I am conscious of nothing in myself,' that is, not conscious of any fault. In the present passage, “We know that an idol is nothing ' is conscious knowledge. ' If any one think he knows (conscious knowledge), he knows (objectively) nothing yet as he ought to know it (objectively):' he is known (objectively) of him,' so 'knowledge,' in ver. 10. (Footnote a on 1 Cor. 8:1, Darby, THE HOLY SCRIPTURE, A NEW TRANSLATION, KINGSTON BIBLE TRUST 1984)

Maybe it is just a coincidence, but the RcV footnote is very similar to the first part of Darby's note.
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