Quote:
Originally Posted by kisstheson
Compare the last sentence in each of these two excerpts. A definite shift in attitude and speaking has taken place. In 1948, the elders now had to submit to the authority of the apostles. On top of that, the reference to 1 Tim. 5:19 is troubling. I realize that WN was speaking “off the cuff” in the second excerpt, but 1 Tim. 5:19 clearly states that any accusations against an elder must be based upon the testimony of two or three witnesses. There is nothing at all in 1 Tim. 5:19 related to presenting accusations against an elder to the apostles. Am I missing something here?  |
Kisstheson, thank you for the quotes. I have read the first book you quoted from 1938, but not the second. What a change over a ten year period. As for your question about 1 Timothy 5:19, I see it as an interpretation based off an assumption. In order to make such an assumption, there would have to be words in the Bible that just aren't there. Same as you KTS, "am I missing something here?"
Terry