Quote:
Originally Posted by awareness
But how do we know if the author of Matthew was even thinking of Isaiah 7:14, or if he was even reading the LXX?
The context in Matthew only identifies that he's quoting "the prophet."
The author may have been referencing information, or a writing perhaps, that's been lost to us, but was familiar to 'Matthew' and his audience.
Aren't we imposing a NT overlay on the OT ... with a good guess ... that the author of Matthew was thinking of Isiah 7:14 in the LXX?
And what if the author of Matthew was getting from the Holy Spirit?
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Your hypothesis seems improbable since the verse in the Matthew 1:23 is word for word identical Isaiah 7:14 except for the substitution of the word
they for the word
you which I emboldened in the quotes below.
[ is.7.14 ] ιδου [BEHOLD] η [THE] παρθενος [VIRGIN] εν [IN] γαστρι [THE WOMB] εξει [WILL HAVE] και [AND] τεξεται [BEAR] υιον [A SON] και [AND]
καλεσεις [YOU SHALL CALL] το [THE] ονομα [THE NAME] αυτου [HIS] εμμανουηλ [EMMANOUEHL]
[mt.1.23] ιδου [BEHOLD,] η [THE] παρθενος [VIRGIN] εν [WITH] γαστρι εξει [CHILD SHALL BE,] και [AND] τεξεται [SHALL BRING FORTH] υιον [A SON,] και [AND]
καλεσουσιν το [THEY SHALL CALL] ονομα αυτου [HIS NAME] εμμανουηλ [EMMANUEL,]
That word substitution is remarkable, however. For, the word
you in Isaiah 7:14 is addressed to Ahaz in the imperative grammatical mood. The verse is a command to name the child who is to be a sign Emmanuel. Whereas, in Matthew the word
they reflects the indicative mood. God was not commanding Joseph and Mary to actually name the child Emmanuel. Rather, Emmanuel would reflect the child's true nature and thus, those who would call a Jesus Emmanuel would be speaking an essential truth.
That the author felt free to make a word substitution that changes the verse's meaning is significant in itself. The author seems to be exercising creative license in a way that indeed might be associated with the ecstatic inspiration of the Spirit, at least to eyes of Christian faith.