Quote:
Originally Posted by aron
Jesus wept not for His sins, but for ours. And the Father listened. So the tears of the psalmist are of themselves vain, but as a preface of the coming Christ they display God's salvation in His Son Jesus, the High Priest of Heaven who intervenes on our behalf...
Yes, Jesus cried strongly, and the Father heard His cries. Similarly, Psalm 6:9 says, "Jehovah has heard my supplication; Jehovah receives my prayer". Yet in covering Psalm 6 WL merely stressed the inadequacy of David's repentance. Nothing here, to WL, indicated the coming Christ.
The Epistle to the Hebrews clearly says that Jesus' cries were heard, and God saved Him from death. The psalmists' strong cries and desire to be saved from death, and the exultation and hope of the same, were found by the indifferent RecV footnote expositor to be absent of any connection. I find this strange.
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The apostle Peter said that even though David declared the word and it was not fulfilled in him, God still used David's word as a prophecy of the coming Seed of David. See Acts 2:29-32.
Contrast this with the "apostle" WL who merely said that David declared the word in vain, and left it at that. It was not up to the New Testament standard, he said. So I ask, which version should WL's "New Testament believers" prefer? And are there other versions or views that also work, here?