[VoiceInWilderness]

Some brothers and I were fellowshipping about why the 7 epistles in Rev are "to the messenger" of each church rather than to the church itself, so I thought I'd share it here:

WN and WL interpreted "messenger" as the real leaders of the church. Those who can listen and bring the message to the church. The "messenger" is the overcomers.

If the above was the case, why not just write to the church itself?

I don't think Gk word aggelos conveys that meaning.

It usually means"angel", but "angel" doesn't seem to make sense here. Why would the Lord write to angels, and why would He hold the 7 angels in His right hand?

Aggelos is translated 7 times as "messenger" by KJV. The 7 uses are:
1. JB as forerunner to the Lord quoting Mal 3:1a (Mt 11:10; Lu 7:27; Mr 1:2)
2. Messengers sent by JB to the Lord while JB was in prison (Lu 7:24)
3. The Lord sent messengers before His face to make ready for Him (Lu 9:52)
4. a messenger of satan to buffet Paul (2Cor 12:7)
5. The spies sent beforehand by Joshua, whom Rahab received (Jas 2:25)

The NT use of the word is for a forerunner or a representative.

I think the reason the 7 epistles are to the messenger of the churches, as well as to the churches (Rev 1:11) is because the 7 churches in Asia are prophetic forerunners of churches to come. The church in Thyatira in Asia Minor is the prophetic forerunner of the Catholic church, etc.

I see no other reason to write in such a strange way "to the messenger of the church in ...".