[OBW]

Originally Posted by awareness

Wasn't Jesus speaking in Aramaic? So then, what did the Aramaic word mean? Aramaic wasn't Greek. It was Semitic. So we can't actually know the etymology of the word Jesus was using. We're seeing thru a Greek filter. And in those days ekklesia did not mean the called out ones. It meant any gathering.

But what the word meant that Jesus used in Aramaic we can't know. And neither could Lee.

That is the core of the problem with word studies. They are relying on the fiction that Greek is the source. Greek was only the source for what is likely very little of the epistles (if any). I mean, it could be that Paul wrote a letter to the Romans using Greek . . . .