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Old 09-12-2014, 01:57 PM   #134
OBW
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Default Re: LSM's Etymological Errors - Nigel Tomes

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ohio View Post
The Lord Jesus himself selected this word when He said, "I will build My church." Did He have some Athenian assembly in mind?
I sort of doubt Jesus chose the word "ekklesia." I further doubt they spent the time talking in Greek. More likely Aramaic.

So we have yet another word not spoken by anyone at the time that is now provided as the one we will source back to for our scripture. Do we presume that the writers were parsing words by core meanings, or using Greek equivalents that were understood to mean what the original Aramaic (or even Hebrew when you consider the Septuagint). Do we presume that the decision that a particular English word being chosen as the word for some Greek word (which was translated from an Aramaic word) should be studied for its root meaning?

And so we arrive at the old question of inerrancy that talks about the original autographs. To the extent that this was guys writing down what they heard (or dictating it for someone else to write down), then if it is not in Greek it gets translated to Greek, what weight do we give to the core meaning of the various words? While Luke may have recorded his accounts in Greek, much of it (or at least the gospel and the early parts of Acts) probaby derives from Aramaic. I don't give much credibility to residents of Judea, especially the ones who were fishermen, learning enough Greek to be that choosy about their Greek words. More likely to use the ones they (and everyone else) understood. And they weren't studying the history of words to help write a great book of code. As Paul said, "to make known . . ." not "to better obscure and hide . . . ."
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