Local Church Discussions - View Single Post - LSM's Etymological Errors

Cal · 08-21-2014, 12:45 PM

Again I think the question is how we think God expects us to read the Bible. Does he expect us to read it simply with the view that all is being said is what the writer and speakers were trying to say? Or is that God includes messages in the Bible based on the meaning and associations of words that even the writer wasn't aware of? Or which were intended not for the immediate audience but secondary audiences perhaps centuries in the future?

A good example might be the origins of Satan supposedly existing in Isaiah 14:12-15 and Ezekiel 28:12-19 behind references to the kings of Babylon and Tyre. Assuming we believe these are references to Satan, do we believe that the writers knew they were writing about Satan, or that they did not? If the latter then we are supporting the "hidden message" theory that Lee so readily employed and that the scholars cited in Tomes's study seem to implicitly deny access to, at least in some cases.

Again if there are hidden messages in the Bible (and if you believe in this origin of Satan theory you believe there are to some extent) then they could be anywhere and so the possible meaning of any word beyond what the writer knew or understood is in play.

08-21-2014, 12:45 PM	#6
Cal Member Join Date: Jul 2008 Location: USA Posts: 4,333	Re: LSM's Etymological Errors - Nigel Tomes Again I think the question is how we think God expects us to read the Bible. Does he expect us to read it simply with the view that all is being said is what the writer and speakers were trying to say? Or is that God includes messages in the Bible based on the meaning and associations of words that even the writer wasn't aware of? Or which were intended not for the immediate audience but secondary audiences perhaps centuries in the future? A good example might be the origins of Satan supposedly existing in Isaiah 14:12-15 and Ezekiel 28:12-19 behind references to the kings of Babylon and Tyre. Assuming we believe these are references to Satan, do we believe that the writers knew they were writing about Satan, or that they did not? If the latter then we are supporting the "hidden message" theory that Lee so readily employed and that the scholars cited in Tomes's study seem to implicitly deny access to, at least in some cases. Again if there are hidden messages in the Bible (and if you believe in this origin of Satan theory you believe there are to some extent) then they could be anywhere and so the possible meaning of any word beyond what the writer knew or understood is in play.