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Old 08-13-2014, 06:32 PM   #236
aron
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Join Date: Jul 2008
Location: Natal Transvaal
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Default Re: Is The Bible Inerrant?

Quote:
Originally Posted by OBW View Post
Isn't it strange that God would inspire words that are not his?
We know what the Bible says, concerning the scriptures.

"Man does not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds out of the mouth of God." Matt 4:4; Deut 8:3

"All scripture is God-breathed and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction in righteousness..." 2 Tim 3:16

And so, where are we presented with the idea that it is not "every word" or "all scripture" but rather "some words" and "some scripture"; secondly, by what process we are to relegate some of it to a status of lesser profitability or nourishment?

And where is it suggested that some scriptures' utility are only in showing fallen men's failed good intentions?

I would like to see the precedent for this: if this presentation came AFTER WL's "God's eternal economy" template emerged, then that should rather impel us to relegate his hermeneutical template to a lesser rank, rather than subordinating the scriptures themselves.
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