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Originally Posted by Richard Gaffin Jr
Posing two questions will expedite our discussion of the last clause in v. 45: (1) What is the reference of the noun “spirit” (pneuma)? (2) Since life-giving pneuma is what (Christ as) the last Adam “became,” what is the time point of that becoming? A couple of interlocking, mutually reinforcing considerations show, decisively it seems to me, that “spirit” in v. 45 refers to the person of the Holy Spirit.
and a little later:
As the adjective pneumatikovn in vv. 44 and 46 plainly refers to the activity of the Holy Spirit, so its correlative noun pneuma in v. 45 refers to the person of the Holy Spirit. (2) This conclusion is reinforced by the participial modifer Paul uses. The last Adam did not simply become pneuma but “life-giving” pneuma (pneuma zwopoioun). The “spirit” in view is not merely an existing entity but an acting subject. Paul’s use of this verb elsewhere proves decisive here, especially his sweeping assertion about the new covenant in 2 Cor 3:6 “The Spirit gives life.” In the contrasting parallelism that stamps this passage too, few if any will dispute that “the Spirit” (to; pneuma) in v. 6 is “the Spirit of the living God” just mentioned in v. 3—in other words, the Holy Spirit. Again, Rom 8:11 attributes the “life-giving” activity of resurrection to the Spirit (cf. John 6:63). For these reasons, pneuma in 1 Cor 15:45 is definite and refers to the person of the Holy Spirit.
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Now I'm totally confused. Gaffin "proves," with other Paul verses that, the life-giving spirit is the Holy Spirit. He says : "(Christ as) the last Adam," but then concludes, the last Adam became the Holy Spirit.
If that's correct then Lee was right. If, that is, Paul meant to say, the last Adam was/is the resurrected Christ.
But sounds to me like Gaffin's logical conclusion, by default, is saying that the last Adam is the Holy Spirit.
So go on bro UntoHim, and present more commentary. Maybe it will clear up my confusion.