Quote:
Originally Posted by awareness
So when Paul said "I know a man," he was talking about himself? Why would Paul speak in the 3rd person, and switch to 1st person, and end it with:
2Co 12:5 Of such an one will I glory: yet of myself I will not glory, but in mine infirmities.
Is Paul to us so beyond "an ordinary human cognitive apparatus like the rest of us" that we've got to attribute "I know a man" to Paul?
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It was an expression of humility. Paul was showing us what our attitude should be if and when we truly "see the vision." Number one, we shouldn't go around saying "Listen to me, blind moo-cows! I've seen the vision! Me! I! I, I, I!!" Like, well, you-know-who and his faithful followers did.
Paul struck a very different attitude.