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Originally Posted by OBW
Interesting approach.
But you have only shown what is agreed, and that is that 1 Cor 2:10 refers to the spirit of God, or the spirit of Jesus. But can you show that 1 Cor 15:45 is talking about the spirit of God? You assert that Unto has merely stated something but not proved it.
Actually, I think that the proof concerning 1 Cor 15:45 has been rather clearly shown. And it has been fairly clearly shown that Lee's version is so contextually wrong as to be laughable.
I think that the verse, and especially given its context, is talking about the nature of the resurrected body and not about the spirit of God, the spirit of Jesus, or the Holy Spirit. It is not talking about anyone's spirit — whether that of God or of man — but rather of the nature of the body that is "sown in resurrection." And that body is spiritual. It is spirit.
And since the first example was all he had, Paul is pointing us to the resurrected Christ who happens to also give life. In this case it would be safe to say that Paul waxed a little emotional here. He got a little caught up in the superlatives of the person he was speaking of as the example.
And with that, I think it is fairly safe to say that despite the common word being used in both verses, they are not talking about the same thing.
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Thank you for your help. But, I'm still in a bit of a quandary. If Paul meant "spiritual body" in I Corinthians 15:45B, why didn't he say so? In other words, why did Paul not say, " The last Adam became a life-giving spiritual body?" You are claiming that is what he meant. He has no problem saying "spiritual body" in the preceding verse. So, if he meant to say that in 15:45, presumably he could have. Why didn't he say, "spiritual body" here?