Quote:
Originally Posted by UntoHim
The people to whom Jesus was speaking to had very little concept of the Holy Spirit...in fact the Holy Spirit was a totally foreign term/concept to most of them. So why would Jesus use a metaphor to a people who wouldn't have the faintest idea of what he was speaking of?
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Where do you come by this claim that the Jews didn't have the faintest idea of the holy Spirit?
A search of the KJV of the phrase "spirit of the lord," comes up with 858 occurrences ... only 22 in the NT.
And "spirit of God" pulls 415 hits ... 49 of them in the NT
And the "holy Spirit" is mentioned 4 times in the OT.
So the Jews had some idea of the holy Spirit.