Quote:
Originally Posted by aron
I think that what WL did is rather serious and it would be interesting to [find] support for his stance... who is being prophetic here, and who is being natural: David, or WL?
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The Bible reveals Jesus Christ. Peter said in Acts 2 that David's Psalms (16:8-11 and 110:1) were prophetic words echoing God's promise, that David's seed, the coming Messiah, would inherit glory (v.30,31). So when the psalmist, for example, wrote "God will help me", might we not be out of line in seeing reference to God raising Jesus and giving Him glory? Now, if not directly quoted in the NT, we don't want to overstretch, but at least we may still consider "this Jesus" (v. 32).
Instead, WL used another apostle (Paul), writing "Do not teach anything contrary to God's
oikonomia, which is in faith" to overturn this Jesus. Now WL says God didn't help David, but David helped himself. And WL says David wasn't qualified to write about the "righteous man" suffering, because David was a sinner. And so forth. The suffering and faithful Jesus, clearly present in the NT account, is simply not considered.
So I would like to know, is WL overturning 2,000 years of Christian teaching to satisfy his "God's economy" metric? Or is there some precedent for his doing this? Because what he is doing to the Bible as God's word is serious.
As I said, the Bible reveals God's plan for us in the person of His Son Jesus Christ. To say that some scripture doesn't reveal this Jesus, but merely the fallen, natural concepts of a writer, should give us pause. Even if David thought that "his promised descendant" on the throne (v.30) was his immediate heir Solomon, that doesn't make the writing less revelatory of Jesus Christ.
So: 1) is WL really "continuing steadfastly in the teaching and fellowship of the apostles" here, and if so, how; and 2) if not, how could he hypnotize and mesmerize so many of us that none questioned such a teaching, which bulldozed God's word in this manner?