Quote:
Originally Posted by Ohio
I'm honestly ... frankly speaking ... not exactly sure how you are disagreeing with me.
But, back to your initial question. Jesus often did not quote from the Hebrew text, rather He used the Greek Septuagint translation o the Hebrew scriptures. I'm sure that ticked off the Scribes and Pharisees.
The writer of Hebrews did the same.
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Don't despair. The disagreement is minor.
You seemed to say that inerrancy was placed on scripture so that it could be refuted by secularists (or other non-Christians). I think that inerrancy was placed on scripture by Christians with a view to forcing it to become a modern, scientifically-sound document. It is only in the "why" of pushing inerrancy, not the strengths, problems, or results that we differ.
In other words, I think that to the extent that the discussion goes too far in forcing absolutely precise meaning that is consistent with known history, science, etc., inerrancy is a problem.
But if we remove inerrancy from the discussion, we return to a collection of writings that describe the God in whom we must have faith, not fact, to believe and follow. We eliminate the need to fight about the ancient forms of prose, poetry, etc., used in describing phenomenon for which they had no first-hand knowledge (creation, the fall, even the flood). The purpose was not a detailed, factual account of creation, etc., but a telling of the person and actions of God with respect to man. And the truth concerning God is accurately revealed even if precise science and history is not.
So don't fret over our minor disagreement. Who gave us
inerrancy to argue over is not that important.