[UntoHim]

Guest 1
While I appreciate your exuberance and tenacity, your post is filled with a lot of "too much information". You could have left out the third and fourth paragraph, and still made your point quite clearly. Instead I'm afraid your main point(s) are getting drowned out by all the "TMI".

I understand and appreciate your defense of Witness Lee's more literal interpretation of this notion of "one spirit with the Lord" and other related concepts. At one time I (and probably Igzy) subscribed fully to these notions and concepts. Point being is we know "where you are coming from", and I think you need to take this into consideration in the dialog.

I think we can all agree that there are things to be taken literally, and there are things that may require further examination and considerations, not the least of which includes using the Bible to interpret the Bible. For example, one of the 10 Commandments is "Thou shalt not kill". Not a lot of wiggle room here, now is there? When the woman at the well said "I know that Messiah is coming (He who is called Christ); when that One comes, He will declare all things to us." The Lord Jesus immediately left no room for her to wonder – “I who speak to you am He”.(Jn 4:25,26) At another point, later in the Gospel of John, Philipp boldly declared "Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us." The Lord Jesus replied with an even bolder declaration - "Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'?” (Jn 14:8,9)

At first blush one could take this to mean that Jesus Christ, God the Son, was declaring that He was (or maybe became) God the Father. Yet just a little later, in the very same chapter, the Lord Jesus declared “I go to the Father, for the Father is greater than I”. (vs 28) In this instant, one only needed to go a few more verses and run into what seems to be a great contradiction. If the Lord Jesus was the Father why would He need to “go to the Father”, and how could the Father be “greater than I”? The key here is using the Bible to interpret Bible. In this instance, one needs to use verse 28 to help with interpreting what the Lord Jesus meant in verse 9 when He said “Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father”. The apparent contradiction is resolved by using other related verses (in this case in the very same chapter).