[zeek]

According to Tomes interpretation of the biblical text should lead to only one valid meaning—that intended by the author. What about Paul’s interpretation of the Hebrew Bible? Is that a hermeneutical principle that Paul practiced? For example in Galatians 3 he says:

15 Brethren, I speak in the manner of men: Though it is only a man’s covenant, yet if it is confirmed, no one annuls or adds to it. 16 Now to Abraham and his Seed were the promises made. He does not say, “And to seeds,” as of many, but as of one, “And to your Seed,”who is Christ. 17 And this I say, that the law, which was four hundred and thirty years later, cannot annul the covenant that was confirmed before by God in Christ,that it should make the promise of no effect. 18 For if the inheritance is of the law, it is no longer of promise; but God gave it to Abraham by promise. 19 What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator. 20 Now a mediator does not mediate for one only, but God is one.

In Genesis God told Abraham that the blessings are for him and his “seed”. 14And the LORD said unto Abram, after that Lot was separated from him, Lift up now thine eyes, and look from the place where thou art northward, and southward, and eastward, and westward:
15For all the land which thou seest, to thee will I give it, and to thy seed for ever.
16And I will make thy seed as the dust of the earth: so that if a man can number the dust of the earth, then shall thy seed also be numbered.

Paul notes that “seed” is grammatically singular. But how can a single seed be as “the dust of the earth”? Wasn’t the writer of Genesis using “seed” as a collective noun to mean” descendents” or “offspring” ? Paul interprets the passage to mean Abraham and his one seed—Christ. If the author of Genesis had intended seed to be singular, why did he say that the seed would be as the dust of the earth?

In Romans 4 Paul demonstrates that he knows the word “seed” is collective when he states: 18"Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be.” Seed here refers to the nations.

So, wait a minute. What is the intention of the author of Genesis seed singular or seed plural? According to Tomes interpretation of the biblical text leads to only one valid meaning—that intended by the author. How can then can “seed” have different meanings in different letters according to Paul? It seems bizarre to me Tomes and his "most evangelical scholars" expect that when we interpret the Bible we are supposed to reject practices of interpretation that were used by the writers of the Bible themselves.