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Originally Posted by PeterG
“Not for” (μὴ ἐπὶ) and “if not for” (εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ) make no difference in meaning. And both want to say: "except for". New Testament exegesis is no longer based on Erasmus anyway.
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Yes, Dr. McFall's point is that we have moved off of Erasmus Greek text for English translation with the exception of Matthew 19:9 which is inconsistent.
1. μὴ ἐπὶ πορνείᾳ = “not for fornication”
μὴ is a negative particle meaning “not.”
This phrase limits or qualifies an action:
“Whoever divorces his wife, not for fornication, and marries another, commits adultery.”
It excludes fornication as a valid reason to remarry:
Even if you divorce not for fornication (i.e., for any other reason), remarriage is adultery.
εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ πορνείᾳ = “except for fornication”
εἰ μὴ means “if not” or “except.”
This creates an exception clause, meaning:
“Whoever divorces his wife, except for fornication, and marries another, commits adultery.”
This reading permits divorce and remarriage if the divorce was because of fornication.
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And the biblical statements on fornication, adultery, divorce, and remarriage simply allow for slightly different interpretations, which Pawson, for example, mentions
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It's important to get this right depending on your soteriology because Paul says adulterers will not inherit the kingdom of God.
1 Corinthians 6:9–10
Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters,
nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.