Quote:
Originally Posted by Raptor
One of the worst cases of eisegesis is the erroneous teaching saying there are two different servants in Matthew 24:45-51, and that the first one is a believer and the other is an unbeliever. This is inaccurately adding and imposing words and meanings to the Bible. Itīs completely wrong, destroying the meaning of the parable  . There is only ONE servant in those verses, with two possible outcomes depending on what that servant does. Even a third grade level of reading comprehension is sufficient to undestand there is only one servant. " But suppose THAT SERVANT is wicked and says in his heart....",
ONLY ONE SERVANT being judged by his works! |
Yes technically it is one servant with two possible outcomes in Luke 12:42-48. Even then I don't see how the meaning changes. If the servant is disobedient and dies without repenting then it shows that he was never truly saved and born again to begin with. How do you skirt around the clear statement that he was "cut to pieces" (does this sound like discipline from a loving father to you?) and assigned a place with the "apiston", those without faith, the unbelievers:
Luke 12:48 (NIV)
The master of that servant will come on a day when he does not expect him and at an hour he is not aware of. He will
cut him to pieces and
assign him a place with the unbelievers.
I didn't make this interpretation up but I got it from the apostle John:
1 John 3:15
Everyone who
hates his brother is a murderer, and you know that no murderer has eternal life abiding in him.
1 John 3:7-8
Little children,
let no one deceive you. Whoever practices righteousness is righteous, Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil.
Notice how the Apostle John says "
let no one deceive you". Is it possible that we've been deceived by Witness Lee and Watchman Nee and their exclusive Brethren teachers?
Who do you trust more concerning the doctrine of millennial exclusion? The early church fathers like Polycarp (disciple of John) or Clement of Rome (co-worker of Paul mentioned in Phil 4:3) who were able to ask the original apostles questions concerning faith & salvation as well as being fluent in Koine greek or the exclusive Brethren teachers who came on to the scene 1800 years after Christ's birth?
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JzqDV91AFPo
It brings me no pleasure to defend this position. I wish you were all right so more could be saved, but I just don't see it in scripture. I feel like the weeping prophet Jeremiah. Yet we are all free to believe what we believe.